(The referenced article on ACM's website has since been withdrawn from publication: <a href="https://medium.com/@CoalitionForCriticalTechnology/abolish-the-techtoprisonpipeline-9b5b14366b16" rel="nofollow">https://medium.com/@CoalitionForCriticalTechnology/abolish-t...</a>)
When they say that there is no racial bias, do they mean that one race is no more likely to be tagged criminal than another? Or that the likelihood matches empirical likelihoods?<p>The fact that that question would come to any reader's mind is probably why (if baylearn is correct) the article has been withdrawn from publication.