I think this article looking at the two major financial drops as independent events is mis-guided.<p>The article states that the 2008 financial collapse was caused from the bottom-up, starting with mortgage lending.<p>It then goes on to state that the current drop is a result of 'Governments around the world, unable to stimulate their economies and get their houses in order, have gradually lost the trust of the business and financial communities.'<p>But the reason the governments were trying to stimulate their economies was as a result of the 2008 recession. Wasn't most of the spending and debt which accumulated a result of the stimulation packages aimed at resolving the 2008 drops?