I'm bad at reading scientific papers, could someone clarify this please? It says in the results:<p>> Compared with nonconsumers, consumers of various amounts of unsweetened coffee (>0 to 1.5, >1.5 to 2.5, >2.5 to 3.5, >3.5 to 4.5, and >4.5 drinks/d) had lower risks for all-cause mortality after adjustment for lifestyle, sociodemographic, and clinical factors, with respective hazard ratios of 0.79 (95% CI, 0.70 to 0.90), 0.84 (CI, 0.74 to 0.95), 0.71 (CI, 0.62 to 0.82), 0.71 (CI, 0.60 to 0.84), and 0.77 (CI, 0.65 to 0.91); the respective estimates for consumption of sugar-sweetened coffee were 0.91 (CI, 0.78 to 1.07), 0.69 (CI, 0.57 to 0.84), 0.72 (CI, 0.57 to 0.91), 0.79 (CI, 0.60 to 1.06), and 1.05 (CI, 0.82 to 1.36).<p>It explicitly says that the all-cause mortality for unsweetened coffee was lower, that's pretty clear. But then it just gives (Confidence Interval?) numbers for "the respective estimates for consumption of sugar-sweetened coffee" but doesn't say if it lowers all-cause mortality, is that implied as well? Or are those numbers just confidence intervals without giving an assessment?