ELI5 how is this different from saying: "The probability of `randrange(1000000) == 832095` is one in a million. Therefore, that number is highly unlikely to have come from a random number generater."?<p>I'm sure there's a good answer, but when they talk about the probability of specific mutations, it <i>sounds to me</i> (as a rube) like the same fallacy. Can anyone help me understand why it isn't?
Related Twitter thread by one of the authors (Hideki Kakeya): <a href="https://mobile.twitter.com/hkakeya/status/1566759417609322496" rel="nofollow">https://mobile.twitter.com/hkakeya/status/156675941760932249...</a>