> The gender gap in urban cycling worldwide is staggering.<p>Why is this an inherently good objective to pursue? Are there studies showing that it would be 50/50 if it weren't for those listed factors, or did they find a few examples supporting the hypothesis and then it's all about equality of outcome and shaping society according to a biased perspective?-- that might not actually reflect individual choices in reality.<p>In some cases like earning wages, I can see some form of argument for equality of outcome, but is this supposed to be applied to literally everything? 50/50 going to the beach, 50/50 enjoy chococlate the same way, 50/50 split in obesity rates, etc.
"In Anglo countries, including Australia, only one in four commuter cyclists and one in three recreational cyclists are women"<p>Would be curious to see which of these asymmetries persist in countries ranked higly on the gender inequality index, <i>e.g.</i> the Netherlands and Sweden [1].<p>[1] <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender_Inequality_Index#Top_ten_countries" rel="nofollow">https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender_Inequality_Index#Top_te...</a>