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100 Years to Solve an Integral (2020)

215 pointsby blobcodeabout 1 month ago

14 comments

ziofillabout 1 month ago
I know the article is about sec(x) but I want to share this tidbit about its cousin, the hyperbolic secant: sech(x) is its own Fourier transform (modulo rescalings). That’s right, exp(-x^2) is not the only one.
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scytheabout 1 month ago
The most elegant proof IMHO is the one that avoids the original problem entirely.<p>Int[csc(x) dx] = 2 Int[csc(2u) du]<p>= 2 Int[du &#x2F; (2 cos(u) sin(u))]<p>= Int[sec^2(u) du &#x2F; tan(u)]<p>= log(tan(u)) + C<p>= log(tan(x&#x2F;2)) + C<p>Then Int[sec(x)] = Int[csc(u)] = log(tan(u&#x2F;2)) + C = log(tan(pi&#x2F;4 - x&#x2F;2)) + C.<p>Of course, this was no use to Mercator, because the logarithm hadn&#x27;t been invented yet. But you aren&#x27;t just pulling a magic factor out of nowhere. There is definitely a bit of cleverness in rearranging the fraction — you have to be used to trying to find instances of the power rule when dealing with integrals of fractions.
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cl3mischabout 1 month ago
Neither in (German) high school nor in the many math courses of a physics B.Sc. have I ever used the secant function. I am surprised the article does not explain it in the beginning. I assume for other people it must be a common function?
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LegionMammal978about 1 month ago
If we&#x27;re playing the map-projection-advocacy game, I&#x27;d say the Mollweide projection is underrated among equal-area maps [0]. (For local maps, use whatever you want, appropriately centered.) Sure, it distorts shapes away from the central meridian, but locally it only adds a simple horizontal skew. I&#x27;m not a big fan of how many equal-area &#x27;compromise&#x27; projections lie about how long the lines of latitude are.<p>[0] <a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;Mollweide_projection" rel="nofollow">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;Mollweide_projection</a>
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ljspragueabout 1 month ago
&gt;[the Mercator projection] unnecessarily distorts shapes and in particular makes the Americas and Europe look much larger than they actually are. This has been linked, not without rational, to colonialism and racism.<p>The fact that on many maps Europe is much smaller that it appears should just make you all the more impressed by its achievements.
glimsheabout 1 month ago
A refreshing Hacker News article after a week of repetitive political garbage. Thank you!
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billab995about 1 month ago
About how long it&#x27;d take me to solve the integral in my calculus finals.
ChuckMcMabout 1 month ago
It amuses me that doing software and hardware engineering for decades and never once thinking about trigonometric functions other than perhaps sine and cosine, and then I get interested in software defined radio and find myself running into all of the functions! That&#x27;s especially true with the discreet mathematics that SDR uses.
redbellabout 1 month ago
Oh! This was already discussed five years ago with 77 pts and 40 comments (<a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;news.ycombinator.com&#x2F;item?id=24304311">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;news.ycombinator.com&#x2F;item?id=24304311</a>)
jwmerrillabout 1 month ago
This is also the inverse Gudermannian function [1]. That Wikipedia page has some nice geometrical insights.<p>[1] <a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.m.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;Gudermannian_function" rel="nofollow">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.m.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;Gudermannian_function</a>
charlieyu1about 1 month ago
I remember teaching integral of sec x to high schoolers with multiplication of sec x + tan x. I mean it is not obvious but it is not like something that would take 100 years.<p>And the author talks like logarithm was invented long after integration
Imustaskforhelpabout 1 month ago
Dude I am not joking but today was the day that we were introduced to indefinite integration as a formal chapter in maths at my coaching and we did secx integration.<p>Basically our sir told us to multiply &#x2F; divide by sec + tan and observe that its becoming something like integration f(x)^(-1) f&#x27;(x) * dx and if we let f(x) as t and this f&#x27;(x) * dx becomes dt Actually we can also prove the latter and I had to look at my notes because I haven&#x27;t revised them yet but its basically f(x) = t<p>so f&#x27;(x) = dt&#x2F;dx so f&#x27;(x)* dx = dt then we get<p>so integration f(x)^n * f&#x27;(x) * dx = integral t^n * dt (where t = f(x)) integral t^-1 dt so we get ln(t) and this t or f(x) was actually sec x + tan x so its ln(sec + tan) and in fact by doing some cool trigonometry we can say this as ln(tan(pi&#x2F;4 + x&#x2F;2)) + c<p>also cosec x integration is ln(tan(x&#x2F;2)) + c<p>I haven&#x27;t read the article but damn, HN, this feels way too specific for me LOL.
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rurbanabout 1 month ago
I&#x27;ve learned it in Austrian highschool, but then from university on nobody needed it anymore.
whatever1about 1 month ago
It feels like LLMs could be good contenders for solving symbolically integrals. After spending some time, it really feels like translating between two languages.
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