Arg, this pseudomath is hurting my brain. Why does he keep saying P is multiplicative when it's written like a function?? How can the same variable P (or function) affect B and C differently?? If the perceived benefit is equal to the perceived cost then does that mean the value equals 1? What does that mean?? If the perceived cost is 2x the perceived benefit, then shouldn't the overall value be negative?? (instead of being 1/2?). And is it deliberate that the whole equation is undefined for when perceived cost equals 0??