While I am all for reducing sugar consumption, this one sentence lead me to completely distrust this paper:<p>> The study found no link between sugar intake and new mood disorders in women and it is unclear why. More research is needed to test the sugar-depression effect in large population samples.<p>There is literally no further comment on why this effect was not observed in women. Why? To me, this means it's possible that some confounder is at play here.<p>I'm also with Xeoncross (another commenter here) who observed that this study took place from 1983 to 2013. Quoting him:<p>> Sugar consumption has gone up, so has US inflation, less overall exercise, social media consumption, and a variety of other possible negative factors.<p>So you're telling me that the link was not observable in women, AND that many social/economic realities changed in the course of the study, and we're supposed to believe there was little room left for confounders? This reeks.