I'm not sure that you can assume that corporate tax revenues, if not taxed and left with the corporation, would all accrue to shareholders in dividends or dividend-equivalents. In an idealized setting that's true, but I'd be surprised if empirically there wasn't more interaction of variables, with some of the revenues accruing to other parties, like management or other employees, due to effects such as: cash-flush corporations tend to pay higher salaries and spend more money on perks.<p>In other words, this article claims that two situations have equivalent effects for shareholders:<p>1. Corporate tax rate of 35%, and dividend tax rate of 15%<p>2. Corporate tax rate of 0%, and dividend tax rate of 50%<p>But I am not at all sure that that's the case in practice, i.e. that empirically if we changed from #1 to #2, it'd make no difference.