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The Gambler's Fallacy Is Not a Fallacy

13 点作者 prmph大约 1 年前

7 条评论

lupire大约 1 年前
A whole lot of words just to say that you can make any assumptions you want and get any predictions you want, in the face of ambiguous unreliable information. But the author doesn&#x27;t even realize that&#x27;s what they are arguing.<p>I&#x27;m surprised that HN is so quiet on Sunday morning that 8 pts is enough to make #5 frontpage post for an article that fails the Wikipedia Test (”is the article better than the Wikipedia post on the same topic?”)<p><a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.m.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;Gambler%27s_fallacy" rel="nofollow">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.m.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;Gambler%27s_fallacy</a>
derbOac大约 1 年前
This is Taleb&#x27;s point I think.<p>In the standard gambler&#x27;s fallacy situation, it&#x27;s assumed known that the coin is fair.<p>However, in real life there&#x27;s always some probability that the assumption is incorrect.<p>One way to think about it is in terms of likelihoods, priors, and posteriors over models, in addition to the probability of an outcome conditional on a model.<p>So, the classical assumption is something like P(X | Mf) = 0.5 for a &quot;fair&quot; model Mf, and you&#x27;re asking someone &quot;what&#x27;s the probability of heads?&quot;. However, there&#x27;s also the possibility that the coin is actually biased, under Mb. So the actual probability of an observed sequence is something like<p>P(X|Mf)P(Mf) + P(X|Mb)P(Mb).<p>Usually we assume that P(Mf) &gt;&gt; P(Mb) but there must be some point at which P(Mb) becomes great enough that it would be rational to start to question that.<p>Implicitly there&#x27;s some Bayesian estimate of P(Mb|X) that could be estimated, and some decision point where you decide P(Mb|X) &gt; P(Mf|X).
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milesvp大约 1 年前
&gt; But this can&#x27;t be right––for no one commits that fallacy<p>I most certainly cannot agree with this premise. I’ve met many people who make this mistake all the time. I even have a friend who is amongst the smartest people I know who honest to god thinks he’s lucky. He believes that there is some force that allows him to either effect the next said coin toss or allows him to devine the next coin toss. It’s wild, he’s even really good at board games too, so it’d be easy to think he might be lucky too.
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jrm4大约 1 年前
I stopped after thinking the following:<p>I have incomplete information on what a &quot;koin&quot; is -- I am <i>told</i> that it&#x27;s like 50&#x2F;50.<p>But PURELY from what I have seen, it clearly likes &quot;tails.&quot;<p>Exactly why shouldn&#x27;t I bet &quot;tails?&quot; This is pretty much the same as &quot;yes, you can&#x27;t PROVE that the sun won&#x27;t rise tomorrow but that&#x27;s how we act.&quot;
thaumasiotes大约 1 年前
This is mostly nonsense; the work is being done by this assumption that is mentioned quickly in passing:<p>&gt; Let&#x27;s suppose you can be sure that one of the three particular Sticky&#x2F;Switchy&#x2F;Steady hypotheses in Figures 1–3 are true, but you can&#x27;t be sure which.<p>In reality, if you don&#x27;t know what&#x27;s true, you also don&#x27;t know that it must be one of a small set of convenient models.
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deadbabe大约 1 年前
If you find yourself arguing the gambler’s fallacy is not a fallacy you may have a gambling problem.
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paxys大约 1 年前
TL;DR - pages and pages of word salad and pointless math which boils down to – the gambler&#x27;s fallacy is a fallacy if the coin is unbiased, but maybe it isn&#x27;t.
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