The notion that rich <i>people</i> voted for Romney while rich <i>states</i> voted for Obama may also be misleading. While you can attempt to prove this by comparing the incomes of voters at the 100k+ breakpoint, I'm fairly certain the correlation disappears if you set a breakpoint at 250k+. You can see this trend illustrated in the 2008 election exit polls[1]. Obama won the lower income ranges and McCain won the 100k - 200k ranges. However, Obama also won the 200k+ income level. In other words, if you look at those with incomes greater than 100k, it appears that McCain won the rich; however, if you look at those with incomes greater than 250k, the rich seem to favor Obama.<p>While I suspect something similar holds true for the 2012 election, such granular breakdowns weren't reported in this cycle's exit poll summaries. The answer is probably hidden away in Edison Research's database, but the raw data hasn't been released yet. For now, you can get a good feel for the income breakdown by looking at Reuters polls[2], and doing the cross-tabs yourself, but there are quite a few undecideds and the sample-size is small.<p>And I agree that the 250k+ breakdown is also arbitrary, though slightly less so, since it's the lower bound for what many politicians define as "rich". But who knows who those with incomes of 1 million+ voted for? I suspect it was probably Romney. But how about billionaires? The point is that setting such broad and arbitrary breakpoints can be misleading. I'm sure this fallacy has a special name, I just don't know what it is.<p>[1] <a href="http://www.cnn.com/ELECTION/2008/results/polls/#USP00p1" rel="nofollow">http://www.cnn.com/ELECTION/2008/results/polls/#USP00p1</a><p>[2] <a href="http://elections.reuters.com/#poll" rel="nofollow">http://elections.reuters.com/#poll</a>