I see a lot of talk about "tax loopholes" but not any specifics about exactly what those loopholes are. It's easy to blame the law (a process which is mostly just a self-reinforcing talking point), but has it occurred to anyone that maybe neither the law nor Google are "crooked?"<p>You can take the most straightforward law and it still won't withstand a company putting all their IP in a tax haven and then attributing most of their revenues to their tax haven subsidiary. That's not taking advantage of a "loophole" that's taking advantage of the fact that: 1) accounting for revenue is inherently complicated, regardless of the tax laws, especially for service businesses and software services businesses at that; and 2) multi-national corporations must have some way to attribute income to the various countries in which they operate; it wouldn't be fair for every country to individually tax all the company's income separately.<p>It's instructive to try and figure out a tax law that would allow say the U.K. to reach some portion of Google's income. It's harder than it seems. For example, is it relevant that Google has customers in the U.K.? It shouldn't be--there is no sales tax on search services. If someone in the U.K. for example calls up their accountant in the U.S. for advice, as a general rule the accountant isn't liable for income taxes in the U.K. Is it relevant that Google has servers in the U.K.? Sure. But how relevant? How much of the value of Google's service derives from the servers in the U.K. versus the code and algorithms that were developed in California? I think most people would agree that the servers are just incidental--the real value of Google's services is the algorithms and data. So why should the mere existence of servers in the U.K. entitle the country to tax some substantial amount of Google's income?